Cq-Platform https://validator.w3.org/feed/docs/rss2.html Gateway EMLE – 03 Dec 2025, No. DEC032025 01 A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of vulvovaginal candidiasis, occurring almost monthly despite appropriate treatment. She has no underlying medical conditions like diabetes or immunosuppression. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for her? A 35-year-old multiparous woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with sudden, severe, tearing abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She reports a history of chronic hypertension. On examination, the abdomen is rigid and tender (guarding), and the uterus is hypertonic. Fetal heart tracing shows late decelerations and poor variability. Which of the following is the best next step of management? A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent gum bleeding, easy bruising, and prolonged bleeding after minor cuts. She reports heavy menstrual bleeding since adolescence. There is no history of liver disease, drug intake, or family history of hemophilia. On examination, there are multiple ecchymoses over her arms and legs. Laboratory results show: • Hemoglobin: 11.5 g/dL • Platelet count: 250,000 /mm³ • PT: Normal • aPTT: Prolonged • Bleeding time: Prolonged • Platelet aggregation with ristocetin: Decreased Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 32-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in her right breast that has been present for three months. The lump has remained unchanged in size and is not associated with nipple discharge or skin changes. On examination, there is a firm, mobile, non-tender mass approximately 2 cm in diameter located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. No axillary lymphadenopathy is detected, and the overlying skin and nipple appear normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 32-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents to the Emergency Department with a persistent headache, visual scotomas, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 168/112 mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the initial pharmacologic treatment for this patient? A 32-year-old man presents with diarrhea, mental status changes, alopecia, and perioral as well as periorbital dermatitis. He has a history of severe trauma and has been on prolonged parenteral nutrition. Supplementation with which trace element is most likely to correct these complications? A 31-year-old woman presents for evaluation of a suspicious-appearing mole. A punch biopsy confirms melanoma, despite no personal or family history of skin cancer and no prior blistering sunburns. Which of the following pathologic findings is most prognostic for his clinical outcome? A 30-year-old woman presents with excruciating pain and swelling of the right labia majora. She reports it started suddenly this morning. On examination, there is a tender, red, fluctuant mass about 4 cm in diameter in the inferior aspect of the right labium majorum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with a 4 cm submucosal fibroid that is causing heavy, prolonged menstrual bleeding. She is nulliparous and wishes to conceive in the next year. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical approach to manage her condition? 41. A 30-year-old primigravida in active labor with an epidural anesthesia is receiving intravenous fluids. Which of the following is the best general principle of fluid management for her condition? A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being hit in the head by a baseball. He is making incomprehensible sounds, but no words. He opens his eyes and withdraws to painful stimuli. Which of the following is his Glasgow Coma Scale score? A 29-year-old woman complains of a dull, bilateral headache that develops toward the end of her workday. The pain feels like a “tight band” around her head and is not associated with nausea, vomiting, or photophobia. Neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 28-year-old woman receives a Pap test result showing Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined Significance (ASC-US). Her HPV co-testing is positive for high-risk HPV. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management of this patient? A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, severe, unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. On examination, she has significant adnexal tenderness and a positive urine pregnancy test. Her vital signs are stable, but she appears pale. Which of the following is the best next step of management of this patient? A 28-year-old woman experiences profuse vaginal bleeding immediately after a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Her uterus is boggy and above the umbilicus. Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario? A 28-year-old primipara, 5 days postpartum, reports feeling tearful, overwhelmed, and irritable, but still finds joy in her baby and has periods of feeling well. She is sleeping when the baby sleeps. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 28-year-old primigravida at 24 weeks gestation has two consecutive blood pressure readings of 145/95 mmHg, despite no history of hypertension. Her urine dipstick is negative for proteinuria. She reports no other symptoms. Which of the following is the best initial management for this patient? A 28-year-old G2P2 woman is considering a copper IUD. She reports a history of heavy and painful menstrual periods (menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea). Which of the following is the best counseling advice for this patient regarding her menstrual cycles? A 28-year-old G1P0 woman at 20 weeks gestation is being screened for neural tube defects. Her maternal serum alpha feto-protein (MSAFP) level is elevated. Which of the following is the best next step in her management? A 27-year-old previously healthy man presents with fever, headache, vomiting, and neck stiffness for 2 days. On examination, his temperature is 39°C, and he has positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs. There is petechial rash over the trunk and lower limbs. Lumbar puncture reveals: Opening pressure: high, Appearance: turbid, CSF glucose: 20 mg/dL (serum glucose 90 mg/dL), CSF protein: 180 mg/dL (15 to 60 mg/dL), CSF WBC: 2,000 cells/mm³ (90% neutrophils), Gram stain: Gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? A 27-year-old man complains of perianal itching, bleeding, discharge, pain and lumps for a few months. On examination, he has pinkish-white swelling outside and inside the anal canal, partially obscuring the anal orifice. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis? A 25-year-old woman at 20 weeks gestation presents with a severe acute asthma exacerbation. She is hypoxic and using accessory muscles to breathe. What of the following is the difference between managing a pregnant compared to a non-pregnant woman with this condition? A 25-year-old patient is admitted after a serious car accident. He is alert but refuses a blood transfusion, citing religious beliefs. His hemoglobin is dangerously low, and without the transfusion, he will likely die. Which of the following is the ethically and professionally sound course of action? A 25-year-old male presents with jaundice, dark urine, and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin, and increased indirect bilirubin. Peripheral smear shows spherocytes. Direct Coombs test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 24-year-old nulligravida presents with primary amenorrhea and normal secondary sexual characteristics. Her physical examination reveals a blind vaginal pouch and no palpable uterus on rectovaginal examination. Karyotype is 46,XX. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A 22-year-old woman at 9 weeks gestation complains of severe nausea and vomiting, leading to difficulty keeping food down. She has lost 2 kg since her last visit. Her urine dipstick shows moderate ketones. Which of the following is the best initial management for her condition? A 22-year-old G1P0 woman presents for her first prenatal visit at 8 weeks gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 10 weeks ago. She has no significant medical history. She asks about the most accurate way to date her pregnancy. Which of the following is the best answer for her inquiry? A 20-year-old woman is diagnosed with Neisseria gonorrhoeae cervicitis. She has no allergies. Which of the following is the best pharmacological treatment for her condition? A 20-month-old child presents to the emergency room after a single, 3-minute generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The child has a temperature of 39.5°C and has symptoms of a viral upper respiratory infection for the past two days. He has now recovered completely, is alert, and has a normal neurological exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department requesting emergency contraception (EC) after unprotected intercourse 24 hours ago. She does not have any medical disorders. Which of the following is the most effective contraceptive method for this patient? Membership Checkout Online Medical English Exam Online Chemistry Exam Online Biology Exam Simulation Center Advanced Instant Medical Question search Join Our Instructors Team Online EMLE – Egyptian Medical License Examination Log In Terms and Conditions Cardiology Instructor Instructors Best performance board Member results & statistics Membership Cancellation Membership Levels Blog